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for the last 15 years, since the coop converted, out sponsor has not actually voted in the annual election. rather, he has excercised his right to "e;ect " one person (per the by laws>). suddently, in the last year ther eis a controversial (but fgood) new candidate for hte baord and they (board) is trying to ge thte sponsor to elect himself AND vote his shares for all other cadidadates (in an effort to keep out the new person) - anyone? it seems as if a predcedent has been set.
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My answer is below; however, it begs the question.. Controversial? why is the rest of the board, and the sponsor against this person, maybe there is some just cause? Ususlly when its the whole world against 1, there's a reason. Is the candidate really good for the Board then? good for the building? the corporation? or his/herself? Just a question.
If you are correct in what you say, then...
Unfortunately, when it comes to voting, there are no precidents. Each Shareholder, including the sponsor may vote (or not vote) thier shares in any way they like.
This person may wish to campaign thier cause and desire to become a Board member amung the other shareholders to obtain a larger amount of votes; perhaps gather proxies from other shareholders that are not attending, etc..
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